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17 Sep
2020

THE JOB IS TO REPLY WITH A COMMENT TO EACH POST, POST 1 AND…

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THE JOB IS TO REPLY WITH A COMMENT TO EACH POST, POST 1 AND POST 2. WITH 2 COMPLETED (EDUCATIONAL REFERENCE) includidig retrival or doi, IN APA WITH CITATION ABOVE 2013 PER COMMENT. Don’t use plagiarized sources. Get Your Custom Essay on Discussion: working with children and adolescents versus adults Just from $13/Page Order Essay POST 1 Assessment in Child and Adolescent Psychiatry The assessment process of children and adolescents in psychiatry is vastly different than that of adults. Why is this? Oftentimes, children have the same emotional, cognitive, and behavioral deficits. In children and adolescents, however, the justification for behaviors isn’t always as easy to determine. Per the NIMH (2019), children are more difficult to diagnose because of their lack of understanding of their symptoms, withdrawn demeanor, and influence of external factors on their behaviors. Because of this, specific assessment tools are employed that differentiate child/adolescent assessments from that of adults. Why a Development Assessment of Children and Adolescents is Important Bellman, Byrne, and Sege (2013) suggest that behavioral deficits in adulthood are often correlated to developmental delays in childhood. Likewise, Shogren, et al. (2015) discussed a direct correlation to emotional support needs in children and adolescents with developmental disabilities and behavioral deficits in adulthood. Developmental delays aren’t always cognitive in nature. Developmental delays in children and adolescents can be cognitive, such as those caused by chromosomal disorders, or seizure disorders. Developmental delays can be social, emotional, or behavioral–such as autism disorder or attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder. With certain developmental delays, alterations in brain development can affect the way these individuals process and react to information—causing difficulties in learning, communication, and interpersonal interactions (NYU Langone Health, 2019). Understanding which delays are present, if any, can assist in determining viable treatment options and potential behavioral concerns that may manifest. Two Assessment Instruments and Justification for Use in Children/Adolescents but Not Adults Two screening tools unique to the treatment of adolescents and children are as follows: The C-GAS and the HEADSSS questionnaire. The C-GAS, or Children’s Global Assessment Scale, is used for children and adolescents, ages 4-16, to determine any functional impairments that may exist (NSW Department of Health, 2015). This scale is not utilized in adults, because it specifically measures the child’s level of functioning in areas such as school, with peers, emotional functioning, and functioning within society (NSW Department of Health, 2015). The HEADSSS questionnaire, however, was developed to determine adolescent risk factors in the following areas: home, Education/employment, activities, drugs, sexuality, suicide/self-image, and safety (Heard Alliance, 2011). This assessment tool is used for adolescents only to determine specific risk factors in the child’s life. Afterall, certain risk factors can lead to at-risk behaviors. This assessment tool identifies those factors in hopes of establishing protective mechanisms. Two Treatment Options for Children/Adolescents that are Not Used in Adults There are several treatment modalities favored in the child/adolescent populations that are often not employed in adult mental health treatment. These include the use of parental participation and favoritism toward psychotherapy opposed to medication usage. Many psychotropic medications and other medications used in the mental health treatment of children and adolescents are based on evidence-based treatment regimens, opposed to actual pediatric dosing. In addition, side effects of medications warrant caution in younger age groups. Because of this, psychotherapy is the most highly recommended treatment option for children. Psychotherapy is equally utilized in adult psychiatric treatment. However, adult treatment is often augmented with psychopharmacological intervention. In addition, treatment for children entails frequent evaluation. For example, the NIMH (2019) proposed that the incorporation of “teaching skills” and “practicing skills” within the home are unique to child/adolescent psychiatric care. This requires frequent evalution to determine if these skills are resolving the child’s mental health concerns, whether it be improvements adacemically, improved social skills, or a decrease in disruptive behaviors. Parental Role in Assessment and Treatment of Children/Adolescents Parents play a major role in their child’s psychiatric care. Per Haine-Schlagel and Walsh (2015), the mental health of children and adolescents is largely influenced by their interpersonal interactions, family, and social life. A child’s family interactions and environment represents the largest contributor to childhood behavioral problems (Haine-Schlagel
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Don’t use plagiarized sources. Get Your Custom Essay on Mn568 unit 8 exam latest…guaranteed a answers! good luck Just from $13/Page Order Essay Question 1 2 / 2 points Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition. Question options: a) True b) False Question 2 2 / 2 points Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy? Question options: a) Insulin b) Metformin c) Glucotrol d) Precose Question 3 2 / 2 points After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient? Question options: a) Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation. b) Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan. c) Send her for acupuncture treatments. d) All of the above Question 4 2 / 2 points Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc? Question options: a) Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine b) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain c) Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate d) Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue Question 5 2 / 2 points John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain.The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear? Question options: a) Valgus stress test b) McMurray circumduction test c) Lachman test d) Varus stress test Question 6 2 / 2 points The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort.Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs? Question options: a) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.” b) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.” c) “You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.” d) “It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.” Question 7 2 / 2 points The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an x-ray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs? Question options: a) Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury b) Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury c) Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle d) All of the above Question 8 2 / 2 points The clinician finds numerous nodules on the thyroid of a 65-year-old woman. The clinician suspects thyroid cancer. Which of the following data would be most significant for this patient? Question options: a) A history of tonsillectomy in the 1940s b) Recent exposure to mumps c) Vegetarian diet d) Allergy to iodine Question 9 2 / 2 points A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods? Question options: a) Rice b) Carrots c) Spinach d) Potatoes Question 10 2 / 2 points One of the most frequent presenting signs/symptoms of osteoporosis is: Question options: a) Goiter b) Abnormal serum calcium c) Elevated urine biochemical markers d) Bony fracture Question 11 2 / 2 points After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies? Question options: a) Elevated TSH b) Normal TSH c) Low TSH d) Undetectable TSH Question 12 2 / 2 points Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain? Question options: a) Decreased C-reactive protein b) Hyperalbuminemia c) Morning stiffness d) Weight gain Question 13 2 / 2 points The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective? Question options: a) “I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.” b) “I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.” c) “It is important to take my medication right after I eat.” d) “Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.” Question 14 2 / 2 points The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis. Question options: a) True b) False Question 15 2 / 2 points Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome? Question options: a) The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist. b) Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position. c) Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection. d) All of the above Question 16 2 / 2 points Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia? Question options: a) Prednisone b) Metformin c) Synthroid d) Cephalexin Question 17 2 / 2 points Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? Question options: a) Gastrocnemius weakness b) A reduced or absent ankle reflex c) Numbness in the lateral foot d) Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks Question 18 2 / 2 points You are performing muscle strength testing on a patient presenting with musculoskeletal pain and find that the patient has complete ROM with gravity eliminated. Which numeric grade of muscle strength would you give this patient? Question options: a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 Question 19 2 / 2 points A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate? Question options: a) “Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.” b) “Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.” c) “Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.” d) All of the above Question 20 2 / 2 points Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus? Question options: a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions c) Random plasma glucose greater than or equal to 200 in a person with symptoms of hyperglycemia d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion Question 21 2 / 2 points A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes? Question options: a) Reduces postprandial blood glucose b) Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL) c) Reduces total cholesterol d) All of the above Question 22 0 / 2 points A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis? Question options: a) Anxiety disorder b) Pheochromocytoma c) Psychosis d) All of the above Question 23 2 / 2 points The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective? Question options: a) “As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.” b) “I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.” c) “My optometrist checks my eyes.” d) “I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.” Question 24 2 / 2 points A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do? Question options: a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment. b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient. c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint. d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture. Question 25 2 / 2 points A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first? Question options: a) Check his blood sugar. b) Have him drink 4 ounces of juice. c) Call 911. d) Ask him about his usual eating habits. Question 26 2 / 2 points The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit? Question options: a) High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 b) Free T4 and serum calcium c) Free T3 and T4 d) TSH and thyroxin antibodies Question 27 2 / 2 points A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes.Which of the following tests should be ordered next? Question options: a) Serum calcium b) TSH c) Electrolytes d) Urine specific gravity Question 28 2 / 2 points Mrs. Gray is a 55-year-old woman who presents with tightness, pain, and limited movement in her right shoulder. She denies any history of trauma. Her examination reveals a 75% reduction in both active and passive ROM of the right shoulder. Mrs. Gray also is experiencing tenderness with motion and pain at the deltoid insertion. Her medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her social history reveals that she is a secretary and that she is right-handed. Based on her examination and medical history, you suspect adhesive capsulitis, or “frozen shoulder.” Which clue in Mrs. Gray’s history supports this diagnosis? Question options: a) History of hypertension b) Her affected shoulder is also her dominant arm. c) Her history of diabetes mellitus d) Her work as a secretary predisposes her to repetitive motions. Question 29 2 / 2 points What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass? Question options: a) 1,200 mg/day b) 1,000 mg/day c) 1,300 mg/day d) 1,500 mg/day Question 30 2 / 2 points A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease? Question options: a) Sinus bradycardia b) Atrial fibrillation c) Supraventricular tachycardia d) U waves Question 31 2 / 2 points You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is: Question options: a) Articular b) Inflammatory c) Nonarticular d) A and B Question 32 2 / 2 points Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true? Question options: a) There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible. b) Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function. c) Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications. d) All of the above Question 33 2 / 2 points Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is: a) Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle b) Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm c) Inability to supinate and pronate the arm d) Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance Question 34 2 / 2 points Mrs. Allen is a 60-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is very concerned about the risk of breast cancer associated with hormone replacement therapy and is wondering what other treatments are available to her. The clinician explains that bisphosphonates are another class of drugs used in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. What teaching should the clinician give Mrs. Allen in regard to taking bisphosphonates? Question options: a) Taking bisphosphonates can result in hypercalcemia, so calcium intake should be decreased while taking this class of drugs. b) There is potential for upper GI irritation, so these medications are contraindicated in people with abnormalities of the esophagus or delayed esophageal emptying. c) This class of drugs can be taken at any time of the day without regard to meals. d) None of the above Question 35 2 / 2 points The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as: Question options: a) Apprehension sign b) Bulge sign c) Thumb sign d) None of the above Question 36 2 / 2 points Normal estrogen function is important for preventing osteoporosis in both men and women. Estrogen works to prevent osteoporosis in which of the following ways? Question options: a) By decreasing the erosive activity of osteoclasts b) By promoting osteoclastogenesis c) By inhibiting osteoclast apoptosis d) All of the above Question 37 2 / 2 points Which of the following tests should you order to confirm Mr.W’s diagnosis? Question options: a) Bone scan b) Computed tomography (CT) scan c) X-ray of the foot d) Culture of the ulcer Question 38 2 / 2 points One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure? Question options: a) Bone b) Synovium c) Tendons d) Fascia Question 39 2 / 2 points Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient? Question options: a) Elevated uric acid level b) Elevated blood urea nitrogen c) Decreased urine pH d) Decreased C-reactive protein Question 40 2 / 2 points Urine-free cortisol is one of four diagnostic tests recommended for Cushing’s syndrome. Question options: a) True b) False Question 41 2 / 2 points Joyce is seen in the clinic complaining of vague symptoms of nervousness and irritability. She says that her hair will not hold a permanent wave anymore. On physical examination, the clinician finds an irregular heartbeat and brisk reflexes. The differential diagnosis should include which of the following conditions? Question options: a) Myxedema b) Thyrotoxicosis c) Cushing’s syndrome d) Pan-hypopituitarism Question 42 0 / 2 points How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes? Question options: a) Once a year b) Every 6 months c) Every 3 months d) Every visit Question 43 2 / 2 points A BMI of 29 kg/m2 is considered obesity. Question options: a) True b) False Question 44 2 / 2 points Jennifer is an 18-year-old who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited ROM in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation? Question options: a) Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations. b) There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses. c) Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require great force to result in injury. d) Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice. Question 45 2 / 2 points The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications? Question options: a) Low-dose aspirin b) Thiazide diuretics c) Ethambutol d) All of the above Question 46 2 / 2 points Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM. Question options: a) True b) False Question 47 2 / 2 points Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome? Question options: a) Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel. b) Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel. c) An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel. d) Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance. Question 48 2 / 2 points Fruit juice with added sugar is the treatment of choice for anyone experiencing hypoglycemia. Question options: a) True b) False Question 49 2 / 2 points The patient is prescribed radioactive iodine (RAI) and asks the clinician how this drug works. The clinician’s response should include which of the following data? Question options: a) RAI prevents the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. b) RAI binds free T4. c) RAI destroys thyroid tissue. d) RAI reduces freely circulating iodine. Question 50 2 / 2 points Lifestyle modification is the treatment of choice for metabolic syndrome. Question options: a) True b) False
Powerpoint presentation: (the national archives will not allow you to
For this assignment, you need to visit the National Archives Experience. Historians typically use two types of materials, secondary source, and primary source documents. Secondary sources are typically books and articles written on a particular historical event, well after the fact. Primary source documents are usually generated by first-hand participants. Good historians rely heavily on original materials created at the time of the event. For this reason, historians spend a good deal of time at the archives. There are many types of archives, but by far, the largest in the United States, is the National Archives in Washington, D.C. Don’t use plagiarized sources. Get Your Custom Essay on Powerpoint presentation: (the national archives will not allow you to Just from $13/Page Order Essay The National Archives contains more than 10 billion documents, and they have collected over 1,200 of those in the National Archives Experience. After you have opened the above link, click on “continue” in the bottom right corner. This will take you to the Experience site. Here, you can select a topic, and collect documents relevant to that aspect of history. The system will then allow you to create posters, or even a video. There are a number of ways that you can complete this assignment. Once you have collected your documents, you can create three posters, a video, a PowerPoint, or use them as evidence for writing a 3-5 page essay. Naturally, you will need some other information, and you can gather that through the internet, or other books and articles. It is best to avoid using textbooks.
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Writing Assignment Writing ServiceDon’t use plagiarized sources. Get Your Custom Essay on Limited liability companies | Social Science homework help Just from $13/Page Order Essay Week 1 – Discussion 2 49 49 unread replies. 58 58 replies. Your initial discussion thread is due on Day 5 (Saturday) and you have until Day 7 (Monday) to respond to your classmates. Your grade will reflect both the quality of your initial post and the depth of your responses. Refer to the Discussion Forum Grading Rubric under the Settings icon above for guidance on how your discussion will be evaluated. Limited Liability Companies When to form an LLC (Limited Liability Company) (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. discusses why the LLC is one of the most popular types of business entity. After reading the article and Chapter 30 of the textbook, compare an LLC with a C corporation and with an S corporation. If you were operating your own business, would you choose the LLC as the organizational form for your business? Explain your reasoning. Guided Response: Respond to at least two of your fellow students’ posts in a substantive manner. Some ways to do this include the following, though you may choose a different approach, providing your response is substantive: Address students who made the same choice that you did regarding whether to choose the LLC as the organizational form for their business. Using the information from the course textbook and the article, play the role of devil’s advocate and argue why some other type of entity (C corporation, S corporation, or LLC) would be a better choice. Review s made by your peers.
You are a sergeant in a community relations unit in a mid-sized metropolitan police department. Your division commander sent you
You are a sergeant in a community relations unit in a mid-sized metropolitan police department. Your division commander sent you off to a 1-week ethics school run by the Justice Department. You have returned with all kinds of new knowledge about ethics, community relations, and discretion. In your after-action report to the division commander about the training, the chief of police liked what he heard. The chief wants a position paper on ethics as they apply to customer and community relationships, discretion, and operational confidences so that it can be incorporated in the continual ethics and legal guidelines training sessions. Don’t use plagiarized sources. Get Your Custom Essay on 10 pages | Law homework help Just from $13/Page Order Essay Address the following in 10 pages: Explain the importance of legal and ethical guidelines for the police department. Why should ethical guidelines and legal training be a continuing process for all personnel in their annual training cycle? Explain in detail. When police make ethical or nonethical decisions in the public eye, how does it impact the police department as a whole? Explain in detail. Concerning 2 categories of customers contacted by the police on a routine basis, how are ethical issues important to their relationships with these customers? Explain in detail. Police officers must exercise discretion in a number of interpersonal relationships. How can this impact the police department for both the good and the bad? Explain. Close-hold information and operational confidences are critical to any police agency. Relate the importance and impact of operational confidences for administrative issues as well as tactical law enforcement missions. What subcultures are the most influential within a law enforcement agency? Explain. What benefits can police subcultures provide for a law enforcement agency? Explain. What challenges exist with regard to police subcultures within a law enforcement agency? Explain. What ethical dilemmas can be problematic because of police subcultures? Explain. Be sure to reference all sources using APA style.
Busi352 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers key/ busi 352 quiz 5
Don’t use plagiarized sources. Get Your Custom Essay on Busi352 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers key/ busi 352 quiz 5 Just from $13/Page Order Essay Already Graded 2019 BUSI352 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers key Course 201920 Spring 2019 BUSI 352-B01 LUO • Question 1 2 out of 2 points Why is inflation important to consider in retirement planning? • Question 2 0 out of 2 points David, age 52, has come to you for help in planning his retirement. He works for a bank, where he earns $60,000. David would like to retire at age 62. He has consistently earned 8% on his investments and inflation has averaged 3%. Assuming he is expected to live until age 95 and he has a wage replacement ratio of 80%, how much more will David need at retirement to have the same amount at his death as he will have at his retirement? • Question 3 0 out of 2 points Shannon is planning for her retirement. She is currently 35 years old and plans to retire at age 60 and live until age 95. Shannon currently earns $100,000 per year and anticipates needing 80% of her income during retirement. She anticipates Social Security will provide her with $15,000 per year leaving her with required savings to provide $65,000 ($100,000 x 0.80 – $15,000) annually during retirement. She believes she can earn 11% on her investments and inflation will be 2% per year. Assume Shannon would like to have the same purchasing power in retirement savings at age 95, as she does at age 60, when she retires. How much must Shannon save at the end of each year, if she wants to make her last savings payment at age 60 to meet her retirement goal, assuming she wants to maintain the original purchasing power of her capital balance? • Question 4 2 out of 2 points Rick would like to retire in 11 years at the age of 66. He would like to have sufficient retirement assets to allow him to withdraw 90% of his current income, less Social Security, at the beginning of each year. He expects to receive $24,000 per year from Social Security in today’s dollars. Rick is conservative and assumes that he will only earn 9% on his investments, that inflation will be 4% per year and that he will live to be 106 years old. If Rick currently earns $150,000, how much does he need at retirement? • Question 5 2 out of 2 points Jane has the following expenditures during the current year. 1- Health Care $950 2- Travel $800 3- Savings $3,800 4- Gifts to Grandchildren $1,400 Which of these expenditures would you expect to decrease during Jane’s retirement? • Question 6 2 out of 2 points Wilber, age 25, is hoping to retire at age 60. He expects to live until age 90. He anticipates needing $45,000 per year in today’s dollars during retirement. Tyrone can earn a 12% rate of return and he expects inflation to be 4%. 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If they did not make any additional contributions to their account and they receive a fixed monthly annuity benefit for life, what is the monthly benefit (annuity due) amount they will receive during retirement? • Question 9 0 out of 2 points David, age 52, has come to you for help in planning his retirement. He works for a bank, where he earns $60,000. David would like to retire at age 62. He has consistently earned 8% on his investments and inflation has averaged 3%. Assuming he is expected to live until age 95 and he has a wage replacement ratio of 80%, approximately how much must David save at the end of each year, from now until retirement, to provide him with the necessary capital balance assuming he has a zero balance today? • Question 10 2 out of 2 points Work life expectancy (WLE) is the period of time a person in in the work force. This is typically: • Question 11 2 out of 2 points Sarah, a self-employed mechanical engineer, currently earns $100,000 per year. Sarah has always been a self-proclaimed saver, and saves 25% per year of her Schedule C net income. Assume Sarah paid $13,000 in Social Security taxes. Tiffany plans to pay off her home mortgage at retirement and live debt free. She currently spends $25,000 per year on her mortgage. What do you expect Sarah’s wage replacement ratio to be at retirement based on the above information? • Question 12 2 out of 2 points Which of the following expenses typically decrease during retirement? • Question 13 0 out of 2 points Charlie would like to determine his financial needs during retirement. All of the following are expenditures he might eliminate in his retirement needs calculation except: • Question 14 2 out of 2 points Ted and his twin sister Emma, both age 25, each believe they have the superior savings plan. Ted saved $5,000 at the end of each year for ten years then let his money grow for 30 years. Emma on the other hand waited 10 years then began saving $5,000 at the end of each year for 30 years. They both earned 9% on their investment and are 65 years old today and ready to retire. Which of the following statements is correct? • Question 15 0 out of 2 points The capital preservation model assumes that at life expectancy the client has exactly the same spending power as he did at the beginning of retirement.
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1. Don’t use plagiarized sources. Get Your Custom Essay on Str 581 week 3 knowledge check 100% score Just from $13/Page Order Essay 1. One of the limitations of the SWOT analysis is that it can be 2. This structure is one in which a set of relatively autonomous units are governed by a central corporate office but where each operation has its own functional specialists who provide products or services that are different from those of other operations. 3. Value chain analysis takes a 4. Today, global means 5. This is a method of comparing the way a company performs a specific activity with a competitor, potential competitor, or company doing the same thing. 6. The structure of a simple organization 7. Once a hypothesis about competitive advantage has been developed by a firm through three circles analysis, it should be tested by 8. This is an organization structure most notable for its lack of structure wherein knowledge and getting it to the right place quickly is the key reason for the organization. 9. In VCA, which method of cost accounting is preferred? 10. Twenty-first-century corporations reflect 11. The first step of this type of analysis involves a firm determining what their customers value and why they value it. 12. This type of organizational structure combines the advantages of functional specialization with the advantages of product-project specialization. 13. Companies committed to this process attempt to isolate and identify where their costs or outcomes are out of line with what they identify as the best practices of competitors or other companies or organiza 14. Which of the following is an example of a primary activity in the typical firm? 15. One of the limitations of SWOT analysis is that it can do this to a single strength or element of 16. This type of organization or structure is one that identifies a set of business capabilities central to high-profitability operations and then builds a virtual organization around those capabilities. 17. This is an internal analysis technique wherein strategists examine customers’ needs, company offerings, and competitors’ offerings to more clearly articulate what their company’s competitive advantage is and how it differs from those of competitors. 18. These are arrangements between two or more companies in which they both contribute capabilities, resources, or expertise to a joint undertaking, usually with an identity of its own, with each firm giving up overall control in return for the potential to participate in and benefit from the relationship.
diagnosis of anxiety and obsessive compulsive and related disorders | SOCW 6090 – Psychopathology and Diagnosis for Social Work Practice | Walden University
Don’t use plagiarized sources. Get Your Custom Essay on diagnosis of anxiety and obsessive compulsive and related disorders | SOCW 6090 – Psychopathology and Diagnosis for Social Work Practice | Walden University Just from $13/Page Order Essay Social workers take particular care when diagnosing anxiety due to its similarity to other conditions. In this Discussion, you carefully assess a client with anxiety disorder using the steps of differential diagnosis. You also recommend an intervention for treating the disorder. To prepare: Read the case provided by your instructor for this week’s Discussion. Review the decision trees for anxiety and OCD in the Morrison (2014) text and the podcasts on anxiety. Then access the Walden Library and research interventions for anxiety. Post a 300- to 500-word response in which you address the following: Provide the full DSM-5 diagnosis for the client. Remember, a full diagnosis should include the name of the disorder, ICD-10-CM code, specifiers, severity, and the Z codes (other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention). Keep in mind a diagnosis covers the most recent 12 months. Explain the diagnosis by matching the symptoms identified in the case to the specific criteria for the diagnosis. Discuss other disorders you considered for this diagnosis and eliminated (the differential diagnoses). Describe an evidence-based assessment scale that would assist in ongoing validation of your diagnosis. Recommend a specific intervention and explain why this intervention may be effective in treating the client. Support your recommendation with scholarly references and resources. Note: You do not need to include an APA reference to the DSM-5 in your response. However, your response should clearly be informed by the DSM-5, demonstrating an understanding of the risks and benefits of treatment to the client. You do need to include an APA reference for the assessment tool and any other resources you use to support your response.
The Pythagorean Theorem Don’t use plagiarized sources. Get Your Custom Essay on Kim woods only | Mathematics homework help Just
The Pythagorean Theorem Don’t use plagiarized sources. Get Your Custom Essay on Kim woods only | Mathematics homework help Just from $13/Page Order Essay Geometry is a very broad field of mathematics composed of a wide range of tools that can be used for problem solving. In this module, you are going to research three examples of the implementation of geometry that would employ the use of the Pythagorean Theorem as a problem-solving tool. The examples you find can come from several different fields of study and applications such as construction, city planning, highway maintenance, art, architecture, and communications, to name a few. The examples you find must clearly demonstrate the use of the Pythagorean Theorem as a tool. Your textbook—Chapter 10, “Modeling with Geometry”—would be a good reference to consult for some examples illustrating the use of the Pythagorean Theorem in applied situations. For each example you share in your post, address the following: Demonstrate the use of the Pythagorean Theorem in the solution of this problem. How is the Pythagorean Theorem applied to help solve this problem in this application? Why would the Pythagorean Theorem be applied instead of employing some other mathematical tool? What tools, unique to this application, would be necessary to get the measurements needed to apply the Pythagorean Theorem? Are there other geometrical concepts that are necessary to know in order to solve this problem? Are there any modern tools that help solve this kind of problem that either provide a work around, or that rely heavily upon, the Pythagorean Theorem? When constructing your response, consider the theories, examples, and concepts discussed in your readings this module, and refer to them to support your conclusions. Write your initial response in a minimum of 200 words. Apply APA standards to citation of sources. By Saturday, October 18, 2014, post your response to the appropriateDiscussion Area. Through Wednesday, October 22, 2014, review ings of your peers and respond to at least two of them. Consider commenting on the following: What other geometrical tools do you feel are necessary to understand in order to solve the examples provided besides the Pythagorean Theorem? Do you think we would have the technology that we have today without knowledge of mathematical problem-solving tools such as the Pythagorean Theorem? Explain.

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